One Way Street?

One of the passages in the Bible that I struggle with regularly comes from the Gospel of John.  In chapter 14:6, Jesus says " I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."  The way, truth and life part I'm okay with, it's the "No one comes to the Father except through me" that I have trouble with.  It's a very exclusive statement from a man who's ministry was very inclusive.  I think one of the reasons I struggle with this is that it doesn't fit with his actions.  Jesus was determined to open access to God to anyone, not just Jews, and spent time ministering to people outside the accepted circles of 1st century Judaism.  His talk with the Samaritan woman at the well in John 4 shows that.  Then, he turns around and makes a statement that is loaded with exclusivity.  It doesn't fit.

I've looked for help in understanding this statement.  I've read books, searched the web, asked knowledgeable people all to no avail.  No one has yet to give an answer that fits with my understanding of Jesus and his message.  Some people use this verse almost like a club to pummel people into submission and "lead them to Christ".  But, that's an easy, pat answer and in my experience, these answers may be superficially correct, but they miss the subtly and nuance that permeates the Bible.  And, because of that, they don't hold up to intense scrutiny.  On the other end of the spectrum, there are the explanations of the emergent community.  Many people here seem to adhere to a belief similar to the one Ghandi espoused when he said that "Religions are different roads converging to the same point. What does it matter that we take different road, so long as we reach the same goal. Wherein is the cause for quarrelling?"  It's a nice sentiment, and I wonder if my reluctance at embracing it doesn't spring from years of programming that the Christian way is the only way.  But, none of this answers my question.  What did the man actually mean when He said that?  Taking the first answer and saying that only those who accept Jesus as their personal Savior denies the Jewish people their historic place as the People of God.  Some would say that's right, that unless Jews accept Jesus as the Messiah, they have no hope of salvation.  Yet, even Jesus said that the Jews were God's people and that salvation comes from them (John 4:22), so how can this be?  The second interpretation says that all religions are pathways to God and that's the way it's supposed to be.  But, how do I reconcile that with the statement "No one comes to Father except by me"?

On one of my favorite blogs, Jesus the Radical Pastor, the author says that it means just what it says.  Which is surprising.  Usually, the author (John Frye) doesn't go for the easy answer.  It was a bit unsettling and what prompted me to write this entry.  I did get some relief from a couple of comments left on the blog.  One quoted an unnamed theologian, "God is not limited to a means of grace but we are", then went to say that perhaps God is working through other avenues that haven't been revealed to us.  Another mentions a passage that says the Holy Spirit blows where he wills and follows up with "Who am I to say that some person who lives in a place where they have never heard of Jesus but wants very much to do the will of God cannot be visited by or even indwelt by the Holy Spirit?"  Interesting ideas, both of them.  When asked for scripture to back this up, numerous places are listed where people are visited by the Holy Spirit before Jesus was even born.  Scenes like that of Elizabeth and Mary meeting in Luke and Elizabeth is filled with the Holy Spirit at Mary's greeting.  This is the closest I've found to an answer to my question, yet it's still a bit unsatisfying.  Maybe God is working in ways he hasn't told us about.  I just wish he'd give me a hint if that's the case.  I hate not knowing.  Which is an odd thing for a Christian to say, I know.  But, then I'm an odd Christian.















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